Slavery in Islam

Infidel: Do you support slavery?

Muslim: No, I do not.

Infidel: But your holy book Koran says Muslim men can own and have sex with slave girls.

Muslim: This is a lie.

Infidel: Koran 70:29-30, 23:5-6, 4:23-24, 33:50 say Muslim men are allowed to have sex with slave girls.

Muslim: The verses you referred do not mention the word “slave” for a single time. The words for slave in Arabic are عَبْدً and رَقَبَةٍ . On the other hand, the verses you referred use the term أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا.  The word مَا means “What” or “That”.  The word مَلَكَتْ means “Possess” or “Hold”. The word أَيْمَانُكُمْ means “Your belief” or “Your faith”. Therefore, the phrase أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا means “That your faith holds”. Below are the verses of the Quran and words used in those verses for slaves:

· The Quran 58:3 >>> رَقَبَةٍ means “a slave”
· The Quran 5:89 >>> رَقَبَةٍ means “a slave”
· The Quran 4:92 >>> رَقَبَةٍ means “a slave” (Note: The word رَقَبَةٍ has been used 3 times in this verse)
· The Quran 2:177 >>> الرِّقَابِ means “slaves”
· The Quran 58:3 >>> رَقَبَةٍ means “a slave”
· The Quran 16:75 >>> عَبْدً means “slave”
· The Quran 2:178 >>> الْعَبْدُ means “slave”

Infidel: Okay, I understand that the verses I quoted do not mention “slave girls” but what do you say about Koran 24:33? The verse tells Muslims not to force their slave girls into prostitution.

Muslim: فَتَيَاتِكُمْ ا means “Your girls”. It doesn’t mean “slave girls”. Note that in the Quran 24:33, the phrase أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا (That your faith holds) and the word فَتَيَاتِكُمْ (your girls) have been used synonymously by God. “Your girls” means the marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care (especially in an extended family).

The verse 24:33 clearly says that Muslims can’t act as pimps and force “their girls” or “whom they hold by their faith” into prostitution. Also, it says that if “their girls” or “whom they hold by their faith” ask Muslims to will them some property in good faith, then Muslims have to will them a portion of their property.

Infidel: Okay, what about Koran 2:221? It says it’s better for Muslim men to marry a female slave than marrying a polytheistic woman and it’s better for Muslim women to marry a male slave than a polytheistic man.

Muslim: مُّؤْمِنَةٌ means “a believing woman”. It doesn’t mean “A female slave”. And مُّؤْمِنٌ means “a believing man”. It doesn’t mean “A male slave”.

Infidel: Okay, what about Koran 4:25? It says if any of you do not have the means to marry a free believing woman, marry your believing slave-girls. Also, it says if they commit adultery the after marriage, they should receive half of the punishment of a free believing woman who has committed the same crime.

Muslim: Again you are giving wrong translation of the Quran. The phrase الْمُؤْمِنَاتِ الْمُحْصَنَاتِ doesn’t mean “free believing women”. It means “chaste believing women”. The word الْمُحْصَنَاتِ means “chaste” and the word الْمُؤْمِنَاتِ means “believing women”. In addition, فَتَيَاتِكُمُ doesn’t mean “believing slave girls”. The word فَتَيَاتِكُمُ means “Your girls”. God says you can marry “Your girls” [I mentioned before that that the word فَتَيَاتِكُمُ (Your girls) and the phrase أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا (That your faith holds) have been used synonymously in the Quran 24:33. “Your girls” means the marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care, especially in an extended family]. 

Also, it says if you marry “your girls” and if “your girls” commit adultery after the marriage, then they will receive half of the punishment that a “chaste believing women” will receive for committing adultery after the marriage.

Infidel: You said أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا means the marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care. But I think they are captives of war.

Muslim: As I mentioned before that أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا doesn’t mean slave girls. The Quran 33:55 and 24:31 use the term أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا to indicate men whom Muslim women hold by their faith. This proves that أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا doesn’t mean “slave girls” and it can be people of both sex – male or female.

You said you think they are captives of war. No, they are not captives of war. The word for captives of war in Arabic is أَسْرَى. The word أَسْرَى means “captives” or “prisoners”. The Quran 8:67 uses the word أَسْرَى to describe captives of war. Muslims have two options to do with captives of war mentioned in the Quran 47:4 – (i) free them without ransom (ii) free them with ransom. Killing prisoners of war or captives of war has always been a very common practice. Numerous captives of war were killed in all wars of the past 100 years including the two biggest wars WW1 and WW2. The Quran 47:4 tells Muslims that they should either show grace to free the captives of war or free the captives of war with ransom. In other words, the Quran 47:4 tells Muslims not to kill captives of war or torture them.

Infidel: I don’t agree with your interpretation.

Muslim: I’m not interpreting anything. I’m just correcting your wrong definition of Arabic words.

Infidel: What is so glorious about the Koran?

Muslim: The Quran is glorious because it says to free slaves. On the other hand, Jewish and Christian scriptures say to buy, sell, and beat slaves.

Infidel: Where does it say in the Quran to free slaves?

Muslim: Prophet Muhammad (God bless him) personally freed 63 slaves and his wife Aisha (God bless her) freed 67 slaves. In total, his household and friends freed 39,237 slaves. At the beginning of Islam, Arabs who converted to Islam not only freed the slaves they owned but also they purchased slaves from Non-Muslims in Non-Islamic Arabia and then freed those slaves. God (Praise to him) ordered Muslims to free slaves on many occasions in the glorious Quran. For example:

(1) God (Praise to him) says one of the deeds of righteous people is to free slaves (The Quran 2:177).
(2) God (Praise to him) says slaves are one of those groups of people who have right on obligatory alms (Zakah) so they can free them from their slave masters (The Quran 9:60).
(3) God (Praise to him) says if a Muslim accidently kills another Muslim, then he needs to free a slave (The Glorious Quran 4:92).
(4) God (Praise to him) says if a Muslim breaks his/her oaths, then he/she needs to free a slave as compensation (The Glorious Quran 5:89).
(5) God (Praise to him) says if a Muslim man verbally divorces his wife but later wants to be reunited with his wife, he must free a slave as compensation. (58:3-4).

It seems to me that God (Praise to him) likes Muslims to free slaves as compensation whenever they make mistakes.

Infidel: Slavery is no longer exists today. What Muslims will do today if they break their promise? Where would they get a slave to free?

Muslim: The Quran is flexible. Whenever the Quran says to free a slave as compensation, it also mentions what to do if a slave is not found. In other words, if a Muslim can’t find or unable to buy a slave from a Non-Muslim and then to free that slaves, then God gives that Muslim another option. Read the Quran 2:177, 4:92, 5:89, and 58:3-4 for more details.

Infidel: Well, if the God of the Koran doesn’t allow slavery, then why does he say that no one can substitute the murderer whether the murderer is a free man or a slave or a woman (2:178). Giving ruling about slaves proves that Islam allows slavery. If slavery is not allowed, then rulings about slaves are not necessary. For example, if slavery in the United States of America is no longer exists, then there is no need to pass laws about rights of slaves.

Muslim: In Arabia, people used to try to take blood revenge upon the murderer's family and tribe, and the retaliation corresponded to the value placed on the blood of the victim. Their desire for revenge was not quenched merely by putting the murderer to death. They preferred to put to death tens and even hundreds of people to avenge the one life they had lost. If a respected member of their tribe was killed by an ordinary member of another, it was not deemed enough to put to death the actual murderer. They preferred to kill a man of the murderer's tribe equal in standing to the victim, and even several members of the murderer's tribe. 

Even today those nations that are supposedly the most civilized take blood revenge of murderers’ tribes. If one of their citizens is killed they will execute scores of the killer's compatriots. In addition we often hear that to avenge the murder of one person a large number of hostages belonging to a subject nation have been shot dead. One of the 'civilized' nations of the present century subjected the whole Egyptian nation to blood revenge because one of their officials, Sir Lee Stack, was killed by an Egyptian. 

The verse you are referring to doesn’t say slavery is permitted. It says if a slave kills someone, then the slave has to be put to death. Your question is why the Quran talks about free men and slaves when slavery is not allowed in Islam, right? As I mentioned before, the Quran is flexible. It gives solutions to the problems Muslims face when they live in a Non-Muslim society that practises slavery. Also, it gives solutions to the problems Muslims face when they live in a Non-Muslim society that doesn’t practise slavery. Infidels of Arabia practised slavery before Muslims completely took over Arabia. Infidels used to send their slaves to assassinate respectable Muslim figures in society. When a respectable Muslim figure in society was killed by a slave of Infidels, Muslims used to try to take blood revenge on the infidels. God orders Muslims to stop taking blood revenge upon the infidels and practise rule of equality by killing the murderer slave only.

Infidel: I said the Koran 70:29-30, 23:5-6, 4:23-24, 33:50 say Muslim men are allowed to have sex with slave girls. You said in reply that the phrase أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا (That your faith holds) used in the Koran 70:29-30, 23:5-6, 4:23-24, 33:50 doesn’t mean “slave girls”. Instead, it means the marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care. Why your God allows you to take advantage of the dependency of your marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care and force them to have sex with you outside of the marriage?

Muslim: You made an allegation in your question. You said Muslim force their marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in their houses under their protection and care to have sex with them outside of marriage. This is not true.

Sex isn’t a bad thing if it’s between a husband and a wife. Sex outside of marriage is a bad thing. The verse 70:29-30 and 23:5-6 say Muslims guard their private parts from all men and women except for their spouses and those whom they hold by their faith, indicating they can have sex with them. And Verses 4:23-24 mention the two conditions or pre-requisites to have sex with whom they hold by their faith: (1) marriage (2) bridal dues. Sex outside of marriage is not allowed in Islam. 

You also said Muslims force them (who live in their house under their protection and care) force them into marriage. This is not true. The Quran 4:25 says Muslims need their parents’ permission to marry them. Muslims are not even allowed to possess women against their will, let alone marrying them by force. The Quran 4:19 says – “O believers, it is not lawful for you to inherit women against their will…”