Accept Quran, Reject Sunnah

Prophet Muhammad (sw) prophesied that people will claim to follow the Quran and reject the Sunnah before the end time. Rejecting the Sunnah is same as rejecting the Quran because God tells us to follow the Sunnah of Prophet Muhammad (sw) in the Quran.

"One of the signs of the approach of the Day of Judgment is people will claim to follow the Qur'an but will reject sunnah" (Abu Dawood)

5:32 Says: "Obey Allah and His Messenger": But if they turn back, Allah loveth not those who reject Faith."

4:80 says: "He who obeys the Messenger, obeys Allah: But if any turn away, We have not sent thee to watch over their (evil deeds)."

"I leave behind me two things, the Holy Qur'an and my example, the Sunnah, and if you follow these you will never go astray. All those who listen to me shall pass on my words to others and those to others again; and may the last ones understand my words better than those who listen to me directly." [Summary of the Sermon - The Sahih Al-Bukhari]

May God save us from hypocrites that pretend to be Muslims. Amen.

The Veil In Islam

Misconception no. 1: Veil is an Arab culture dress, not religious.

Answer to this Misconception: Prophet's wives and other believing women did not use to veil before the verses of veil were revealed. This is enough proof that veil is religious, not cultural.

Sahih Bukhari, Volume 1, Book 4, Number 148: Narrated 'Aisha:
The wives of the Prophet used to go to Al-Manasi, a vast open place (near Baqia at Medina) to answer the call of nature at night. 'Umar used to say to the Prophet "Let your wives be veiled," but Allah's Apostle did not do so. One night Sauda bint Zam'a the wife of the Prophet went out at 'Isha' time and she was a tall lady.'Umar addressed her and said, "I have recognized you, O Sauda." He said so, as he desired eagerly that the verses of veil. So Allah revealed the verses of veil.

Misconception no. 2: No  cover up is necessary in front of a mahram (an unmarriageable kin) at home.

Answer to this Misconception: You are not allowed to reveal your adornment to the people other than unmarriageable kins. You are allowed to reveal your adornment to the unmarriageable kins at home except what is apparent of it and covering your breasts with your head scarf.

[Sura Nur 24:31]"And tell the believing women to reduce [some] of their vision and guard their private parts and not expose their adornment except that which [necessarily] appears thereof and to extend their headcovers over their breasts and not expose their adornment except to their husbands, their fathers, their husbands' fathers, their sons, their husbands' sons, their brothers, their brothers' sons, their sisters' sons, their women, that which their right hands possess, or those male attendants having no physical desire, or children who are not yet aware of the private aspects of women. And let them not stamp their feet to make known what they conceal of their adornment. And turn to Allah in repentance, all of you, O believers, that you might succeed."

Misconception no. 3: Prophet's  wives are not like other believing women, so dress codes for prophet's wives are different from other believing women.

Answer to this Misconception: God gives both prophet's wives and other believing women the same dress code [when outdoors]. Therefore, it is crystal clear that the dress code for prophet's wives is not different from other believing women.

[Ahzab 33:59] "Oh prophet ! Say to your wives, your daughters, and believing women to veil themselves with their garments [when outdoors]. That is more suitable that they should be known and not be abused. God is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful."

Misconception no. 4: God doesn't order to cover the entire body including face when in public.

Answer to this Misconception: In 33:59, god orders prophet's wives, daughters and believing women to cover themselves with garments when outdoors. How much body should the garments cover? Muhammad (pbuh) understands the Quran best after god. If you disagree to this point, you are not a muslim. Quran is the textbook and Prophet (pbuh) is the teacher. God sent the best of human beings Muhammad (pbuh) to teach us by example according to the Quran. Quran says to pray, Prophet (pbuh) teaches us how to pray. quran says to veil, Prophet (pbuh) teaches us how to veil. Prophet (pbuh) is the best example to follow for believing men and Prophet's wives are the best example to follow for believing women. Sahih hadith of Bukhari clearly state that Prophet's wives and believing women covered their entire bodies including faces (when outdoors) under the rule of Prophet (pbuh), yet some hypocrites among us deny the truth. let them be humiliated in this life and hereafter.

Sahih Bukhari, Volume 1, Book 8, Hadith Number 368, Narrated by 'Aisha (RA): Allah's Apostle used to offer the Fajr prayer and some believing women covered with their veiling sheets used to attend the Fajr prayer with him and then they would return to their homes unrecognized.

Sahih Bukhari, Volume 5, Book 59, Number 462: Narrated 'Aisha: "....He (Safwan bin Al-Muattal As-Sulami Adh Dhakwani) recognized me on seeing me as he had seen me before the order of compulsory veiling (was prescribed). So I woke up when he recited Istirja' (i.e. Inna lillahi wa inna llaihi raji'un) as soon as he recognized me. I veiled my face with my head cover at once...."

Sahih Bukhari Volume 1, Book 8, Number 347 Narrated Um 'Atiya (RA): .... A woman asked, "O Allah's Apostle ' What about one who does not have a veil?" He said, "Let her share the veil of her companion."

Sahih Bukhari, Volume 8, Book 76, Number 572: Anas (RA) narrates from Prophet (pbuh) "....and if  one of the women of Paradise looked at the earth, she would fill the whole space between them (the  earth and the heaven) with light, and would fill whatever is in between them, with perfume, and the veil of her face is better than the whole world and whatever is in it."

Conclusion:

You can uncover your face and hands up to wrists in front of unarriageable kins but you must cover your complete body in front of other men.

Do Not Take Jews or Christians As Your Friends

Christian: I have again question, can somebody explain to me something in Qu'ran? Surah 5:51-" O you who have believed, do not take the Jews and the Christians as allies. They are [in fact] allies of one another. And whoever is an ally to them among you - then indeed, he is [one] of them. Indeed, God guides not the wrongdoing people." So, why we can't be your allies/friends? Why don't you like us? it's discrimination against Jews and Christians??

Muslim: That is a wrong English translation of 5:51, my friend. The word أَوْلِيَاءَ means parents or guardians. It does not mean friend. Click the link below to check out the meaning of أَوْلِيَاءَ in Google Translate:

http://translate.google.ca/#ar/en/%D8%A3%D9%8E%D9%88%D9%92%D9%84%D9%90%D9%8A%D9%8E%D8%A7%D8%A1%D9%8E

Why Does God tell Muslims not to take Jews and Christians as their guardians? Muslims take God (praise to him) and his messenger Muhammad (God bless him) as their only guardians.

Court Trial for Adultery

PART 1:

Christian: Muslim women are inferior to Muslim men.

Muslim: For example?

Christian: A woman's testimony counts 4 times less than of a man's testimony (Quran 24:6).

Muslim: This is not true. 24:04 says a husband must present 4 witnesses to prove his wife committed adultery.

24:6 and 24:7 talk about what the husband is supposed to do if he doesn't have any witnesses. 24:6 and 24:7 say the husband have to testify 5 times by swearing to God against his wife.

24:8 and 24:9 talk about what the wife is supposed to do to avoid court sentence if the husband swear 5 times by God against her. 24:8 and 24:9 say the wife have to testify 5 times by swearing to God against her husband.

Both husband and wife have to testify 5 times against each other by swearing to God. Both husband and wife are equal in the eye of God.

REFERENCES:

"Those who accuse married women of committing adultery - but are not able to prove their accusation by producing four witnesses - must be flogged eighty lashes. Never accept their testimony thereafter because they are sinful" (24:04).

"And those who accuse their wives [of adultery] and have no witnesses except themselves - then the witness of one of them [shall be] four testimonies [swearing] by Allah that indeed, he is of the truthful" (24:6).

"And the fifth [oath will be] that the curse of Allah be upon him if he should be among the liars" (24:7).

"But it will prevent punishment from her if she gives four testimonies [swearing] by Allah that indeed, he is of the liars" (24:8).

"And the fifth [oath will be] that the wrath of Allah be upon her if he was of the truthful" (24:9).

Inheritance Math Error In The Quran

ALLEGATION NO. 1: 

According to the instruction given in the Quran 4:11, 4:12 and 4:176, the sum of the fractions of inheritance is not equal to 1. In other words, the fractions of inheritance do not add up to 1. Does the God of the Quran know simple mathematics?

Answer:

It's not the God of the Quran who does not know mathematics, instead it's the people who claim the shares of inheritance do not add up to 1 do not know simple mathematics that we teach kids in school. For example, have a look at the following simple methodical question which uses the method the Quran uses to divide the property among heirs:

$40 is divided between A, B, C, and D. A gets ½ of $40. B gets ½ of what A leaves. C gets ½ of what B leaves. D gets what C leaves. Calculate how much A, B, C, and D get.

Answer:
A gets=$40x1/2=$20.
B gets=$40-$20=$20; $20x1/2=$10.
C gets=$20-$10=$10; $10x1/2=$5
D gets=$5

Now the question is if A, B, C, and D's shares of $40 add up to 1. Let's see if they do. $20+$10+$5+$5=$40.

In the Quran,
A = Creditor(s) and heir(s) of will
B = Father, mother, husband, and wife/wives
C = Son(s), daughter(s), and People with whom the deceased made contract
D = Brother(s) and sister(s)

The list of heirs of the inheritance and their priority of rights on inheritance are mentioned in the Quran:

Group 1:
(1) Creditor(s): Creditor(s) and heir(s) of will get their share of the inheritance before everybody else. [See verse 4:11 and 4:12]
(2) Heir(s) of will: Creditor(s) and heir(s) of will get their share of the inheritance before everybody else. [See verse 4:11 and 4:12]

Group 2:
(1) Father: Father, mother, husband, and wife/wives get their share of the inheritance from what is left by creditor(s) and heir(s) of will. [See verse 4:11 and 4:12]
(2) Mother: Father, mother, husband, and wife/wives get their share of the inheritance from what is left by creditor(s) and heir(s) of will. [See verse 4:11 and 4:12]
(3) Husband: Father, mother, husband, and wife/wives get their share of the inheritance from what is left by creditor(s) and heir(s) of will. [See verse 4:11 and 4:12]
(4) Wife/Wives: Father, mother, husband, and wife/wives get their share of the inheritance from what is left by creditor(s) and heir(s) of will. [See verse 4:11 and 4:12]

Group 3:
(1) Son(s): Son(s), daughter(s), and People with whom the deceased made contract get their share of the inheritance from what is left by father, mother, husband, and wife/wives. [See verse 4:7 and 4:33]
(2) Daughter(s): Son(s), daughter(s), and People with whom the deceased made contract get their share of the inheritance from what is left by father, mother, husband, and wife/wives. [See verse 4:7 and 4:33]
(3) People with whom the deceased made contract: Son(s), daughter(s), and People with whom the deceased made contract get their share of the inheritance from what is left by father, mother, husband, and wife/wives. [See verse 4:7 and 4:33]

Note: An example of People with whom the deceased made contract is business partner(s). Note that there are two things a deceased can owe his/her business partners(s): (1) money (2) time. If the deceased owe his/her business partners money, then his/her business partners will be considered as Creditor(s) but if the deceased owe his/her business partners time, then his/her business partners will be considered as People with whom the deceased made contract. If A makes a partnership business agreement with B till 2012 but A dies in 2010, then A owes B 2 years (2012 -- 2010 = 02) of time in agreement.

Group 4:
(1) Brother(s):
• If there is no son or daughter, then brother(s) and sister(s) qualify as "Group 3" heirs and get their share of the inheritance from what is left by father, mother, husband, and wife/wives. [See verse 4:176]
• If there is no son, daughter, father, or mother, then brother(s) and sister(s) qualify as "Group 2" heirs and get their share of the inheritance from what is left by creditor(s) and heir(s) of will. [See verse 4:12]
(2) Sister(s):
• If there is no son or daughter, then brother(s) and sister(s) qualify as "Group 3" heirs and get their share of the inheritance from what is left by father, mother, husband, and wife/wives. [See verse 4:176]
• If there is no son, daughter, father, or mother, then brother(s) and sister(s) qualify as "Group 2" heirs and get their share of the inheritance from what is left by creditor(s) and heir(s) of will. [See verse 4:12]

ALLEGATION NO. 2:

The names of some of the heirs are mentioned but the quantities of their shares are not mentioned.

Answer: Again, I want to remind you that people who make these allegations do not know simple mathematics that we teach kids in school. For example -

Sample allegation no. (i): Quran says $21 is divided between A and B. It says A gets 1/3 of $21 but it does not say how much B gets. Therefore it is an error of Quran because we do not know how much B gets.

Answer to the allegation: To answer this allegation, have a look at the simple mathematical question below:
Question: $21 is divided between A and B. A gets 1/3 of $21.  How much A and B get?
Answer: A gets=$21x1/3=$7. B gets=$21-$7=$14.

Sample allegation no. (ii): Quran says $30 is divided between A, B, and C. But it does not say who gets C's share of $30 when C does not exist. Therefore, Quran is wrong.

Answer to the allegation: To answer this allegation, have a look at the simple mathematical equation below:
Heirs' right on property = A's right on property + B's right on property + C's right on property.

If heir C doesn't exist, we can say C has zero right on property. In that case -
Heirs' right on property = A's right on property + B's right on property + 0 = A's right on property + B's right on property.

Therefore, A and B will share C's share of the property if C does not exist.

Sample allegation no. (iii): When answering to the "Sample allegation no. (ii)", you said if A, B, and C are the heirs of the property and if C does not exist, then A and B will share C's share of the property. But sometimes Quran says D will share C's share of the property if C does not exist. Is not it unfair to A and B? Because you prove with mathematical equation that A and B should share C's share of the property if C does not exist.
Answer to the allegation: To answer this allegation, have a look at the simple mathematical equation below:
If E=A+B+C and C=D, then
E=A+B+D

If it says A, B, and C are the heirs of the property ($30) and ask you what to do with C's share of the property, then you let A and B share C's share of the property.

But if it says (i) A, B, and C are the heirs of the property ($30) and (ii) D substitutes C when C does not exist, then you let D have C's share of the property.

Both "letting A and B share C's share of the property" and "letting D have C's share of the property" are correct depending on the terms given on different scenarios.

REFERENCES:

"Instructs you God concerning your children - for the male like (the) portion (of) two females. But if there are (only) women more (than) two, then for them two thirds (of) what he left. And if (there) is (only) one, then for her (is) half. And for his parents, for each one of them a sixth of what (is) left, if is for him a child. But if not is for him any child  and inherit[ed] him his parents, then for his mother (is) one third. And if are for him brothers and sisters, then for his mother (is) the sixth from after any will he has made [of which] or any debt. Your parents and your children -- not you know which of them (is) nearer to you (in) benefit. An obligation from God Indeed, God is All-Knowing, All-Wise." [Quran 4:11 - word for word translation]

"And for you (is) half (of) what (is) left by your wives if not is for them a child. But if is for them a child, then for you (is) the fourth of what they left, from after any will they have made [for which] or any debt. And for them (is) the fourth of what you left, if not is for you a child. But if is for you a child, then for them (is) the eighth of what you left from after any will you have made [for which] or any debt. And if [is] a man (whose wealth) is to be inherited (has) no parent or child or a women and for him (is) a brother or a sister, then for each one of (the) two (is) the sixth. But if they are more than that, then they (are) partners in the third, from after any will was made [for which] or any debt without (being) harmful. An ordinance from God. And God (is) All-Knowing, All-Forbearing." [Quran 4:12 - word for word translation]

"They seek your ruling." Say, God gives you a ruling concerning the kalala if a man died (and) not he has a child and he has a sister, then for her (is) a half (of) what he left. And he will inherit from her if not is for her a child. But if there were two females then for them two thirds of what he left. But if they were brothers and sisters men and women, then the male will have like share (of) the two females. Makes clear God to you lest you go astray. And God of every thing (is) All-Knower." (Quran 4:176 - word for word translation)

"And all We (have) made heirs of what (is) left (by) the (their) parents and the relatives. And those whom contracted your right hands - then give them their share. Indeed, God is over everything a witness. [Quran 4:33- word for word translation]

"For the men (there is) a portion of what (is) left (by) the parents, and the near relatives and for the women a portion of what (is) left (by) parents and the near relatives of what (is) little of it or much -- a portion determinate." [Quran 4:7- word for word translation]

Muhammad Ordered His Followers to Drink Camel Pee

Recently I had a heated argument with an infidel on YouTube by the name of "IndianVedicHistorian". Below is an excerpt of that heated argument:

Infidel: Muhammad ordered his followers to drink camel pee! (Sahih Bukhari, Ablutions (Wudu'), Volume 1, Book 4, Number 234). Lol!

Muslim: The story (hadith) says prophet was right and they became healthy and was able to get use to climate change after following prophet's instruction which was to drink milk and urine of camels. It proves prophet was a wise man or a doctor like figure. Below is the story (hadith):

Anas said, "Some people of 'Ukl or 'Uraina tribe came to Medina and its climate did not suit them. So the Prophet ordered them to go to the herd of (Milch) camels and to drink their milk and urine (AS A MEDICINE). So they went as directed and after they became healthy..." (Sahih Bukhari, Ablutions (Wudu'), Volume 1, Book 4, Number 234).

Infidel: First of all you uneducated baboon, areas in which are in (BRACKETS) are not part of the original text, they are added words hence why they need to have BRACKETS around words you dumb idiot. So there is no word (MEDICINE) after that sentence, that’s a add word by your Islamic scholars who are trying to water down the humiliation of your prophet ordering Muslims to drink camel piss!

Muslim: You said medicine is in bracket & isn't the part of original text. What’s the definition of daddy? Go ask your daddy if you don't know. Your daddy will tell you that daddy is man who had sex with your mother and begot you. Are we clear on that, dear? Now, what's the definition of medicine? Go ask a qualified doctor if you don't know. The doctor will tell you that something that cures a disease or illness is called medicine.

The story (hadith) clearly says the reason why prophet told them to drink camel urine. They were sick and became healthy after drinking camel urine. This proves camel urine worked as a medicine. Therefore, putting (medicine) in bracket doesn't alter the meaning of the story (hadith), instead it clarifies the true meaning. 

In addition, you claimed that prophet ordered Muslims to drink camel urine which is a lie. The story (hadith) does not say they were Muslims. The story (hadith) says they were a group of foreigners and came to medina.

Muhammad's Hallucination

Infidel: Do you know Mohamed would hallucinate? Hallucinations have been defined as the "perception of a nonexistent object or event". “Narrated Aisha: God’s Apostle used to think that he had sexual relations with his wives while he actually had not" (Volume 8, Book 73, Number 89). Muslims are making a grave mistake by believing what an hallucinating Mohamed had said.

Muslim: Yes, Muslims know and accept that Jews practiced black magic on prophet and prophet suffered from it. God cured his Apostle by revealing chapter Nas & Falaq of the Quran. Even Muslim kids know this story and have chapters Nas and Falaq memorized. Prophet did not suffer from the black magic for his entire life. He suffered from it for some days and God cured him. The video below shows a Japanese Muslim kid is reciting chapter Nas from his memory:

Here comes very important point. During the time the Prophet suffered from black magic, he may had problem remembering some events of his daily life but he had no problem with remembering the verses of the Quran revealed upon him. You know why? Because God said he repealed the Quran and he would protect that from corruption. What is the proof that Prophet remembered the verses of the Quran correctly those were revealed on him during the time of his illness? Only chapters Nas & Falaq were revealed on Prophet during the time of illness. If prophet did not remember the chapters Nas & Falaq correctly, then he would never get cured by reciting the chapters Nas & Falaq. Wrong recitation of the chapter Nas & Falaq would not get himself cured. This proves God’s promise of saving the Quran from corruption and Prophet’s memorization of the Quran without any mistake even if when he was suffering from illness.

Reference:

Sahih Bukhari, Volume 8, Book 73, Number 89: Narrated ‘Aisha: The Prophet continued for such-and-such period imagining that he has slept (had sexual relations) with his wives, and in fact he did not. One day he said, to me, “O ‘Aisha! Allah has instructed me regarding a matter about which I had asked Him. There came to me two men, one of them sat near my feet and the other near my head. The one near my feet, asked the one near my head (pointing at me), ‘What is wrong with this man? The latter replied, ‘He is under the effect of magic.’ The first one asked, ‘Who had worked magic on him?’ The other replied, ‘Lubaid bin Asam.’ The first one asked, ‘What material (did he use)?’ The other replied, ‘The skin of the pollen of a male date tree with a comb and the hair stuck to it, kept under a stone in the well of Dharwan.”‘ Then the Prophet went to that well and said, “This is the same well which was shown to me in the dream. The tops of its date-palm trees look like the heads of the devils, and its water looks like the Henna infusion.” Then the Prophet ordered that those things be taken out. I said, “O Allah’s Apostle! Won’t you disclose (the magic object)?” The Prophet said, “Allah has cured me and I hate to circulate the evil among the people.” ‘Aisha added, “(The magician) Lubaid bin Asam was a man from Bani Zuraiq, an ally of the Jews.”

Can God Make A Stone that He Cannot Lift?

This is the photo of Judeo-Christian God YAHWEH located in the church of Vatican City, Italy. 

Atheist: Is God all powerful?

Muslim: Yes.

Atheist: Can God make a stone that he can’t lift?

Muslim: No, God can’t.

Atheist: Then your God is not all powerful as you claim.

Muslim: You don’t understand the difference between strength and weakness.

Atheist: What do you mean I don’t understand? Are you saying that God’s incapability to make a stone that he can’t lift isn't his weakness?

Muslim: No, it’s not his weakness. It’s his strength.

Atheist: Explain how it’s his strength then.

Muslim: Let’s say Mr. Ernestine is all knowledgeable in Physics. If you ask Mr. Ernestine to make a question about physics that he can’t answer and if Mr. Ernestine fail to do so, then it’s his strength, not his weakness. Because it proves that he is really all knowledgeable in Physics. There’s no question about Physics that he doesn't know. But if Mr. Ernestine was able to make a question that he can’t answer, then it would be his weakness. Because it proves that Mr. Ernestine isn't all knowledgeable.

Why Prophet Mohamed had More than 4 Wives?

Non-Muslim: How come your prophet had more than 4 wives when you Muslims are allowed to have up to 4 wives?

Muslim: God says in the Quran 33:50 that if a believing woman wants to marry Prophet (sw) and the prophet (sw) wants to marry her too, then he is allowed to marry her. This doesn’t apply to the rest of the believers. A believer cannot marry a believing woman if he already has 4 wives but the prophet can. Note that forced marriage has no place in Islam. Some ignorant people say prophet (sw) forced women to marry him. This is a lie. Quran 33:50 say prophet (sw) can marry a believing woman if she gives herself to him. The marriage has to be based on mutual agreement between bride and groom.

Non-Muslim: Your prophet took full advantage of God’s permission for him to marry more than 4 women, didn’t he?

Muslim: Prophet (sw) did not take more wives after 33:50 was revealed because Prophet (sw)’s wives did not want him to do so. After the verse 33:50 was revealed, a believing woman came to Prophet (sw) and offered herself in marriage to him. The Prophet (sw) wished to marry her but rejected her proposal to please his present wives. So, God revealed verse 66:1 asking Prophet (sw) why he is pleasing his present wives by not taking more wives when God allowed him to take more wives. After God revealed 66:1, Prophet (sw)’s present wives understood that they should not forbid Prophet to take more wives when God permits Prophet (sw) to do so.

Non-Muslim: Are you saying that God forced the prophet to take more wives?

Muslim: No, God never forced Prophet (sw) to take more wives. God tells the Prophet (sw) that he should not make it illegal for himself to take more wives when God made it legal for him to do so. For example, let’s say God made eating apple legal for you but he doesn’t force you to eat apple. It is not a sinful act if you don’t eat apple because you don’t like the taste of apple. But it is a sinful act if you don’t eat apple because somebody doesn’t want you to eat apple although you like to eat apple.

God made it legal for Prophet to take more wives. It is not a sinful act on Prophet (sw)’s part if Prophet (sw) doesn’t marry a woman whom he doesn’t like. But it is a sinful act on Prophet (sw)’s part if Prophet (sw) doesn’t marry a woman whom he likes because his present wives don’t want him to do so. That’s why God says he is forgiving and merciful indicating he forgave Prophet (sw) for prohibiting himself from what God has made lawful for him.

Reference:

“O PROPHET! SURELY WE HAVE MADE LAWFUL TO you your wives whom you have given their dowries, and those whom your right hand possesses from those God has given to you, and the daughters of your paternal uncles and the daughters of your paternal aunts, and the daughters of your maternal uncles and the daughters of your maternal aunts who fled with you; and IF A BELIEVING WOMAN GAVE HERSELF TO THE PROPHET, IF THE PROPHET DESIRED TO MARRY HER-- SPECIALLY FOR YOU, NOT FOR THE (REST OF) BELIEVERS; We know what We have ordained for them concerning their wives and those whom their right hands possess in order that no blame may attach to you; and Allah is Forgiving, Merciful”. (33:50)

“O Prophet, why do you prohibit [yourself from] what God has made lawful for you, seeking the pleasure of your wives? And God is Forgiving and Merciful”. (66:1)

“Thaabit al Banaani said: I was with Anas ibn Maalik and a daughter of his was with him. He said: “A woman came to the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and offered herself in marriage to him. She said: ‘O Messenger of Allaah, do you want to marry me?’” The daughter of Anas said: “How little was her modesty. How shameless, how shameless!” Anas said: “She was better than you; she had a liking for the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) so she offered herself in marriage to him.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 4828. 

Slavery in Islam

Infidel: Do you support slavery?

Muslim: No, I do not.

Infidel: But your holy book Koran says Muslim men can own and have sex with slave girls.

Muslim: This is a lie.

Infidel: Koran 70:29-30, 23:5-6, 4:23-24, 33:50 say Muslim men are allowed to have sex with slave girls.

Muslim: The verses you referred do not mention the word “slave” for a single time. The words for slave in Arabic are عَبْدً and رَقَبَةٍ . On the other hand, the verses you referred use the term أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا.  The word مَا means “What” or “That”.  The word مَلَكَتْ means “Possess” or “Hold”. The word أَيْمَانُكُمْ means “Your belief” or “Your faith”. Therefore, the phrase أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا means “That your faith holds”. Below are the verses of the Quran and words used in those verses for slaves:

· The Quran 58:3 >>> رَقَبَةٍ means “a slave”
· The Quran 5:89 >>> رَقَبَةٍ means “a slave”
· The Quran 4:92 >>> رَقَبَةٍ means “a slave” (Note: The word رَقَبَةٍ has been used 3 times in this verse)
· The Quran 2:177 >>> الرِّقَابِ means “slaves”
· The Quran 58:3 >>> رَقَبَةٍ means “a slave”
· The Quran 16:75 >>> عَبْدً means “slave”
· The Quran 2:178 >>> الْعَبْدُ means “slave”

Infidel: Okay, I understand that the verses I quoted do not mention “slave girls” but what do you say about Koran 24:33? The verse tells Muslims not to force their slave girls into prostitution.

Muslim: فَتَيَاتِكُمْ ا means “Your girls”. It doesn’t mean “slave girls”. Note that in the Quran 24:33, the phrase أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا (That your faith holds) and the word فَتَيَاتِكُمْ (your girls) have been used synonymously by God. “Your girls” means the marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care (especially in an extended family).

The verse 24:33 clearly says that Muslims can’t act as pimps and force “their girls” or “whom they hold by their faith” into prostitution. Also, it says that if “their girls” or “whom they hold by their faith” ask Muslims to will them some property in good faith, then Muslims have to will them a portion of their property.

Infidel: Okay, what about Koran 2:221? It says it’s better for Muslim men to marry a female slave than marrying a polytheistic woman and it’s better for Muslim women to marry a male slave than a polytheistic man.

Muslim: مُّؤْمِنَةٌ means “a believing woman”. It doesn’t mean “A female slave”. And مُّؤْمِنٌ means “a believing man”. It doesn’t mean “A male slave”.

Infidel: Okay, what about Koran 4:25? It says if any of you do not have the means to marry a free believing woman, marry your believing slave-girls. Also, it says if they commit adultery the after marriage, they should receive half of the punishment of a free believing woman who has committed the same crime.

Muslim: Again you are giving wrong translation of the Quran. The phrase الْمُؤْمِنَاتِ الْمُحْصَنَاتِ doesn’t mean “free believing women”. It means “chaste believing women”. The word الْمُحْصَنَاتِ means “chaste” and the word الْمُؤْمِنَاتِ means “believing women”. In addition, فَتَيَاتِكُمُ doesn’t mean “believing slave girls”. The word فَتَيَاتِكُمُ means “Your girls”. God says you can marry “Your girls” [I mentioned before that that the word فَتَيَاتِكُمُ (Your girls) and the phrase أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا (That your faith holds) have been used synonymously in the Quran 24:33. “Your girls” means the marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care, especially in an extended family]. 

Also, it says if you marry “your girls” and if “your girls” commit adultery after the marriage, then they will receive half of the punishment that a “chaste believing women” will receive for committing adultery after the marriage.

Infidel: You said أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا means the marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care. But I think they are captives of war.

Muslim: As I mentioned before that أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا doesn’t mean slave girls. The Quran 33:55 and 24:31 use the term أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا to indicate men whom Muslim women hold by their faith. This proves that أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا doesn’t mean “slave girls” and it can be people of both sex – male or female.

You said you think they are captives of war. No, they are not captives of war. The word for captives of war in Arabic is أَسْرَى. The word أَسْرَى means “captives” or “prisoners”. The Quran 8:67 uses the word أَسْرَى to describe captives of war. Muslims have two options to do with captives of war mentioned in the Quran 47:4 – (i) free them without ransom (ii) free them with ransom. Killing prisoners of war or captives of war has always been a very common practice. Numerous captives of war were killed in all wars of the past 100 years including the two biggest wars WW1 and WW2. The Quran 47:4 tells Muslims that they should either show grace to free the captives of war or free the captives of war with ransom. In other words, the Quran 47:4 tells Muslims not to kill captives of war or torture them.

Infidel: I don’t agree with your interpretation.

Muslim: I’m not interpreting anything. I’m just correcting your wrong definition of Arabic words.

Infidel: What is so glorious about the Koran?

Muslim: The Quran is glorious because it says to free slaves. On the other hand, Jewish and Christian scriptures say to buy, sell, and beat slaves.

Infidel: Where does it say in the Quran to free slaves?

Muslim: Prophet Muhammad (God bless him) personally freed 63 slaves and his wife Aisha (God bless her) freed 67 slaves. In total, his household and friends freed 39,237 slaves. At the beginning of Islam, Arabs who converted to Islam not only freed the slaves they owned but also they purchased slaves from Non-Muslims in Non-Islamic Arabia and then freed those slaves. God (Praise to him) ordered Muslims to free slaves on many occasions in the glorious Quran. For example:

(1) God (Praise to him) says one of the deeds of righteous people is to free slaves (The Quran 2:177).
(2) God (Praise to him) says slaves are one of those groups of people who have right on obligatory alms (Zakah) so they can free them from their slave masters (The Quran 9:60).
(3) God (Praise to him) says if a Muslim accidently kills another Muslim, then he needs to free a slave (The Glorious Quran 4:92).
(4) God (Praise to him) says if a Muslim breaks his/her oaths, then he/she needs to free a slave as compensation (The Glorious Quran 5:89).
(5) God (Praise to him) says if a Muslim man verbally divorces his wife but later wants to be reunited with his wife, he must free a slave as compensation. (58:3-4).

It seems to me that God (Praise to him) likes Muslims to free slaves as compensation whenever they make mistakes.

Infidel: Slavery is no longer exists today. What Muslims will do today if they break their promise? Where would they get a slave to free?

Muslim: The Quran is flexible. Whenever the Quran says to free a slave as compensation, it also mentions what to do if a slave is not found. In other words, if a Muslim can’t find or unable to buy a slave from a Non-Muslim and then to free that slaves, then God gives that Muslim another option. Read the Quran 2:177, 4:92, 5:89, and 58:3-4 for more details.

Infidel: Well, if the God of the Koran doesn’t allow slavery, then why does he say that no one can substitute the murderer whether the murderer is a free man or a slave or a woman (2:178). Giving ruling about slaves proves that Islam allows slavery. If slavery is not allowed, then rulings about slaves are not necessary. For example, if slavery in the United States of America is no longer exists, then there is no need to pass laws about rights of slaves.

Muslim: In Arabia, people used to try to take blood revenge upon the murderer's family and tribe, and the retaliation corresponded to the value placed on the blood of the victim. Their desire for revenge was not quenched merely by putting the murderer to death. They preferred to put to death tens and even hundreds of people to avenge the one life they had lost. If a respected member of their tribe was killed by an ordinary member of another, it was not deemed enough to put to death the actual murderer. They preferred to kill a man of the murderer's tribe equal in standing to the victim, and even several members of the murderer's tribe. 

Even today those nations that are supposedly the most civilized take blood revenge of murderers’ tribes. If one of their citizens is killed they will execute scores of the killer's compatriots. In addition we often hear that to avenge the murder of one person a large number of hostages belonging to a subject nation have been shot dead. One of the 'civilized' nations of the present century subjected the whole Egyptian nation to blood revenge because one of their officials, Sir Lee Stack, was killed by an Egyptian. 

The verse you are referring to doesn’t say slavery is permitted. It says if a slave kills someone, then the slave has to be put to death. Your question is why the Quran talks about free men and slaves when slavery is not allowed in Islam, right? As I mentioned before, the Quran is flexible. It gives solutions to the problems Muslims face when they live in a Non-Muslim society that practises slavery. Also, it gives solutions to the problems Muslims face when they live in a Non-Muslim society that doesn’t practise slavery. Infidels of Arabia practised slavery before Muslims completely took over Arabia. Infidels used to send their slaves to assassinate respectable Muslim figures in society. When a respectable Muslim figure in society was killed by a slave of Infidels, Muslims used to try to take blood revenge on the infidels. God orders Muslims to stop taking blood revenge upon the infidels and practise rule of equality by killing the murderer slave only.

Infidel: I said the Koran 70:29-30, 23:5-6, 4:23-24, 33:50 say Muslim men are allowed to have sex with slave girls. You said in reply that the phrase أَيْمَانُكُمْ مَلَكَتْ مَا (That your faith holds) used in the Koran 70:29-30, 23:5-6, 4:23-24, 33:50 doesn’t mean “slave girls”. Instead, it means the marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care. Why your God allows you to take advantage of the dependency of your marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in your house under your protection and care and force them to have sex with you outside of the marriage?

Muslim: You made an allegation in your question. You said Muslim force their marriageable relatives and non-relatives living in their houses under their protection and care to have sex with them outside of marriage. This is not true.

Sex isn’t a bad thing if it’s between a husband and a wife. Sex outside of marriage is a bad thing. The verse 70:29-30 and 23:5-6 say Muslims guard their private parts from all men and women except for their spouses and those whom they hold by their faith, indicating they can have sex with them. And Verses 4:23-24 mention the two conditions or pre-requisites to have sex with whom they hold by their faith: (1) marriage (2) bridal dues. Sex outside of marriage is not allowed in Islam. 

You also said Muslims force them (who live in their house under their protection and care) force them into marriage. This is not true. The Quran 4:25 says Muslims need their parents’ permission to marry them. Muslims are not even allowed to possess women against their will, let alone marrying them by force. The Quran 4:19 says – “O believers, it is not lawful for you to inherit women against their will…”

Wife Beating : Sharia Law

PART 1:

Quran doesn't say that "the husband can beat his wife if he wants" or "the husband should beat his wife regularly to keep her obedient to him". Quran says the husband can beat his wife as a last resort in the worst case scenario. Quran also says that the husband might get 80 leashes if his wife sues him in the court for beating her. What is the worst case scenario for a husband? The worst case scenario for a husband is if his wife cheats on him with other men. What is the last resort? Beating adulteress wife.

"[The] men (are) protectors of the women because (has) bestowed God some of them over others and because they spend from their wealth. So the righteous women (are) obedient (to God) guarding in the secrets (their private parts) that which (orders) them to guard (by) God.* And those (from) whom you fear their ill-conduct then advise them, and forsake them in the bed and [finally] strike them. Then if they obey your (advice) then (do) not seek against them a way. Indeed, God is Most High, Most Great." [The word by word translation of the Glorious Qur'an 4:34]

*The Glorious Qur'an 24:31 -- "And say to the believing women that they cast down their looks and guard their private parts..."

According to Qur'an 4:34, there are three consecutive steps a husband have to follow to reform her wife --
First step: Advise her. (Go to second step if wife doesn't reform herself)
Second step: Stop having intercourse with her. (Go to third step if wife doesn't reform herself)
Third step (Last resort): Beat adulteress wife. (At this point, two things can happen. (1) Wife will reform herself (2) Wife will sue her husband if she thinks she is innocent)

PART 2:

Whenever a husband beats his wife, what his wife does? She usually complains to the judge. A wife is allowed to complain against her husband in the court for suspecting her of adultery and beating her. A wife is also allowed to ask for divorce if she gets beaten up. Once a woman complained to Prophet Muhammad (sw) against her husband for beating her and asked for divorce. Prophet Muhammad (sw) denied to accept her request for divorce and told her to get back to her husband. Then God revealed 4:34 and:35 giving beaten wives right to have a fair trial and ask for divorce.

"And if ye (O Prophet) fear a breach between them twain (the husband and wife), appoint an arbiter from his folk and an arbiter from her folk. If they desire amendment God will make them of one mind. Lo! God is ever Knower, Aware." [The Glorious Qur'an 4:34]

"A women complained to Muhammad that her husband slapped her on the face, (which was still marked by the slap). At first the prophet said to her: "Get even with him", but then added: "Wait until I think about it". Later on, Allah supposedly revealed 4:34 to Muhammad, after which the prophet said: "We wanted one thing but God wanted another, and what God wanted is best." ("Beyond the Veil", available from VOM, 918-337-8015)

Qur'an 4:34 and 4:35 are very significant. These verses show that the woman who complained to Prophet have right to divorce her husband (to leave her husband). Also, the verses show that her husband has no right to beat her expect if she is unfaithful. In pre-Islamic Arabia, women did not have right to sue or divorce their husbands but husbands had right to divorce their wives. In pre-Islamic Arabia, a husband was even allowed to kill his wife. Islam gave both husbands and wives equal rights. Qur'an says-"And they (women) have rights similar to those of men over them in a just manner." [2:228]

PART 3:

When a wife sues her husband in the court, the judge appoints lawyers for both sides. In the trial, husband must prove that he beat his wife because she committed adultery (did not guard her private parts) in his absence**. To prove it, the husband must present 4 witnesses. If the husband beat his wife out of suspicion rather than having certain proof of her ill conduct, it is more likely he would lose the trial because suspicion is not a proof in front of the court.

If husband's lawyer can prove that her wife committed adultery, the husband would be free from the charge for beating his wife. But if the husband fails to prove his wife guilty, the husband and his 4 witnesses must be flogged eighty lashes each. And, the judge will never accept their testimony in future as they are considered sinful. Also, wife can divorce her husband, if she wishes.

**[Qur'an 24:04] "Those who accuse married women of committing adultery - but are not able to prove their accusation by producing four witnesses - must be flogged eighty lashes. Never accept their testimony thereafter because they are sinful."

PART 4:

What does Bible says about adulteress wife? Bible gives stone to death penalty on an adulteress wife. (Deuteronomy 22:20)

Myth: Hijab Not Islamic but Cultural

Misconception No. 1: Veil is an Arab culture dress, not religious.

Answer to this misconception: Prophet's wives and other believing women did not use to veil before the verses of veil were revealed (Sahih Bukhari, Volume 1, Book 4, Number 148). This is enough proof that veil is religious, not cultural. Before Islam in Arabia, men and women would go round the Kaba naked, arguing that they should present themselves before God in the same condition they were born (Invitation to Islam, Issue 1, May 1997). Islam taught Arabs how to veil. Judge Islam by Quran and Sunnah. Do not judge Islam by action of Muslims because there are so many so called Muslims out there who do not practise Islam. For example, do not define veil by how one of your Pakistani friend covers her. This is because there are some Pakistani women who wear veil properly when some others do not.

Misconception No. 2: Rules of hijab for prophet's wives are different from rules of hijab for other women. This is because:

(i) God tells prophet's companions to talk to prophet's wives from behind a curtain when they go to prophet's home (33:53). God doesn't mention anything like this about other women. 

(ii) The list of unmarriageable kin for prophet's wives (33:55) is different from the list of unmarriageable kin for other women (24:31). Husband's father, husband's son, their own adopted sons, male subordinates free from physical needs, and children are not included in the list of unmarriageable kin for prophet's wives, but they are included in the list of unmarriageable kin for other women.

Answer to this misconception: 

(i) Prophet's wives are the mothers of the believers. The Quran 33: 53 says prophet's wives are unmarriageable kin of the believers. Prophet's companions used to call them "mothers". This made prophet's companions think that they can talk to prophet's wives face to face like they talk to their mothers and other unmarriageable kin. This is why God sent message ordering them to talk to prophet's wives from behind a curtain when they go to prophet's home. Prophet's wives are our mothers in a spiritual sense, so we cannot marry them. But we must talk to them from behind a curtain just like we talk to other women from behind a curtain when we go to someone's home. Aisha (RA) narrates that on one occasion a female Muslim wanted to give a letter to the Holy Prophet (SW), the letter was delivered to the Holy Prophet (SW) from behind a curtain. (Abu Dawood Book 33, Hadith # 4154)

(ii) God does not include husband's father, husband's son, male servant free from physical needs, and children in the list of unmarriageable kin for prophet's wives because prophet's father passed away before his birth, Prophet had no son, and prophet's wives had no adopted sons or male subordinates free from physical needs at prophet's home. God doesn't mention of them because they don't exist in prophet's family. "Muhammad is not the father of any of your men but he is the Apostle of God and the Seal of the Prophets: and Allah has full knowledge of all things"(Quran 33:40).

Is Atheism Evil?

I do not want to embarrass or upset my atheist friends. If you are an atheist and are unable to handle the ugly truth about atheism, PLEASE STOP READING RIGHT NOW.

The century's death toll at the hands of Communist governments (excluding wars) is 100 million people. Country by country, deaths by the state in China stand at 65 million, in the USSR 20 million, Vietnam 1 million, North Korea 2 million, Cambodia 2 million, Eastern Europe 1 million, Latin America 150,000, Africa 1.7 million, and Afghanistan 1.5 million. Additionally, the international Communist movement murdered about 10,000 people throughout the world.

Let's talk about some common arguments presented by some atheists to justify their crime against humanity. Some atheists say that religions (crusades) killed many people just like atheism did. Let's not forget that crusade is like a drop in the ocean comparing with the crimes done by atheists. Atheists killed way more people than all religions combined.

Some atheists say that atheists don't kill people in the name of atheism. Let's not forget that atheism is the absence of belief in God and afterlife. Please answer the following multiple choice question:

I don't kill and rape because:
a) I fear hell fire
b) I fear police
c) I think they are not the right things to do
d) All of the above

Many of us will play innocent and say they do not kill and rape because they think they are not the right things to do. BELIEVE ME, THERE ARE MANY OF US WHO DON'T DO THESE BECAUSE THEY FEAR POLICE. If they have the chance to avoid police, they will not hesitate to kill and rape. What I am saying is harsh but true. A true religious person will not kill and rape even if he/she has a chance to avoid the police. You know why? Because he/she believes that they cannot avoid hell fire hereafter.

Not all of us don't kill and rape not because we think they are not the right things to do. Note that criminals commit crimes even though they know they are not doing right things. Atheists that massacred people didn't believe that they would be judged by god hereafter for their crime against humanity. The lack of belief in afterlife (atheism) encourage them to commit crime. They believed there is no God to bring them to justice hereafter if they somehow can get away with their crime in their earthly lives.

I apologize if any atheist is either upset or embarrassed after reading this. I posted this only because I want people to know the truth about Atheism. I want people to know that atheism can't bring world peace.

Theft : Sharia Law

My atheist friends think God is cruel because he gives very severe punishments for crimes. For example, Bible gives stone to death penalty on adulterous women (Deuteronomy 22:20-21) and Quran gives the punishment of amputation of a thief's hand (Quran 5:39).

"And (as for) the man who steals and the woman who steals, cut off their hands as a punishment for what they have EARNED, an EXEMPLARY punishment from God ; and God is Mighty, Wise. But whoever REPENTS after his wrongdoing and REFORMS, indeed, Allah will turn to him in FORGIVENESS. Indeed, God is Forgiving and Merciful. Do you not know that to God BELONGS the dominion of the heavens and the earth? He punishes whom He WILLS and forgives whom He wills, and God is over all things competent." (Quran 5:38-40).

FOUR VERY IMPORTANT POINTS are to be noted:

(1) God says he doesn't GIVE OUT that punishment to thieves. Thieves EARN that punishment. It sounds like a teacher says to his students that he doesn't give out marks to students, students earn marks.

(2) God says the punishment is EXEMPLARY. This means other people should learn a lesson from the punishment of thieves. No one would dare to steal something after watching the punishment of amputation of a thief's hand. If the price for the safety of a society is to cut off the hands of thieves, then it is better to cut the hands off of the thieves.

(3) God says if a thief REPENTS to God and REFORMS himself/herself (doesn't steal again in future), he/she would be PARDONED (his/her hands will not be cut off). If the thief doesn't reform himself/herself after his/her repentance, he/she will not be pardoned second time (his/her hands will be cut off).

Note that the punishment of cutting hands off for stealing only applies when a country is fully governed by God's law. Because God's law uproots poverty from the society by Zakah (Obligatory alms giving required of all Muslims). The biggest reason of theft is poverty. God not only punishes for stealing but also ensures that no one steals because of poverty. God says-"You shall observe the Contact Prayers (Salah) and give the obligatory charity (Zakah), and bow down with those who bow down." (Quran 2:43) In Saudi Arabia and Iran, people's hands are not cut off for stealing if they are in poverty. Note that poverty means lack of basic human needs (e.g. food, clothing, and shelter), not the lack of luxury things.

(4) Is it possible to justify the action of Mr. Jeff if he smashes the windows of a vehicle that doesn't belong to him? No, his action can't be justified because he doesn't own that vehicle. Is it possible to justify the action of Mr. Jeff if he smashes the windows of a vehicle that belongs to him? Yes, his action can be justified because he owns that vehicle. He has right to do whatever he wants to do with that vehicle because that is his private property.

(5) Quran doesn't say to chop off the hands of non-Muslims. It says to chop off hands of the thieves regardless of their religious identity. Everyone is EQUAL BEFORE THE LAW in the Quran. Westerners borrowed Quranic principle of the equality before the law for their legal system. No other legal system prior to Quran declared equality before the law in the history of mankind.

Theists believe that God is the owner of everything that is in the heaven and on earth including human beings. God has ownership rights on human beings. He has right to do whatever he wants to do with human beings. This is why the severe punishment of God makes sense to theists. God says everything including human beings BELONGS to him. Therefore his WILLS will be done.

Western societies have not succeeded to solve the problem of crime because they are kind to criminals. Their kindness towards criminals is increasing and so is crime. There is a direct relationship between their kindness towards criminals and crime. A group of foolish westerners are protesting to ban death sentence under the banner of human rights. Compare crime statistics between western countries with countries that FULLY follow God's law. The crime rate is close to zero percent in Saudi Arabia and Iran. The proof of the benefits of following God's law is in front of your very eyes. Don't close your eyes. Keep them open.